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FINRA Series 10 practice exam

Take Achievable's free full-length FINRA Series 10 practice exam with 145 questions and detailed explanations.
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Free FINRA Series 10 practice exam

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145 questions•4 hr time limit•100% free

This free full-length Series 10 practice exam simulates the actual test experience to help you prepare for exam day. Questions are designed to match the real Series 10 exam format, difficulty, and time constraints. Your score is broken out by each of the 4 Series 10 job functions, so you can see where to focus. Once you select an answer, it's locked in. Your progress is saved automatically, so you can return anytime. Good luck!

Solve each of the Series 10 practice test questions below to get a feel for what to expect on the actual Series 10 exam. Achievable's free Series 10 practice questions are scored instantly, providing the correct answer along with an easy to understand explanation. Get started on the path to passing the Series 10 exam by solving 145 Series 10 exam sample questions.
Question 1

A representative was fired for cause 3 and a half years ago, after allegations of sales practice violations. They are now applying for registration at a firm. What is the most important action that they must take?

A.
Disclose the termination and reasons on the U5.
B.
Disclose the termination and reasons on the U4.
C.
Nothing, FINRA jurisdiction is only 2 years.
D.
They must wait at least 10 years from termination to avoid a statutory disqualification.
Question 2

According the NMS Rule 612, what is the minimum price increment, up or down, for a stock currently trading at $0.75\$0.75?

A.
$0.01\$0.01
B.
$0.0001\$0.0001
C.
$0.005\$0.005
D.
$0.001\$0.001
Question 3

What type of exemption does Regulation D provide?

A.
Primarily for companies issuing securities overseas.
B.
Primarily for companies to raise money from institutional investors.
C.
Primarily for companies to raise money in a single state.
D.
Primarily for companies to raise money from accredited investors.
Question 4

For the purposes of being able to participate in the 401(k) plan at work, a part-time employee who is 23 years old, would need to work at least 500 hours a year, for how many consecutive years?

A.
3 years
B.
2 years
C.
5 years
D.
only 1 year
Question 5

A client in their brokerage account, has $300k\$300\text{k} in cash, and $200k\$200\text{k} in securities in the account. If the firm goes bankrupt, what is the client's SIPC protection?

A.
$500,000\$500{,}000
B.
$300,000\$300{,}000
C.
$450,000\$450{,}000
D.
$200,000\$200{,}000
Question 6

All felony charges in the past how many years will create a statutory disqualification?

A.
10 years
B.
5 years
C.
Indefinitely
D.
They won't
Question 7

Which of the following investments resembles a mutual fund but, because it is issued by a state or local government entity, is excluded from the definition of an investment company?

A.
529 plans
B.
REITs
C.
DPP
D.
Hedge Funds
Question 8

When the term censure is used with a representative, what does that generally mean?

A.
A formal reprimand on their firm's employment records.
B.
A formal reprimand on their record held at FINRA.
C.
A temporary suspension of license, lasting up to 6 months.
D.
A non-punitive punishment issued by FINRA for minor violations.
Question 9

Which of the following would most likely cause the biggest issue when it comes to an outside business activity.

A.
Teaching weekend painting class for $100\$100 honorarium.
B.
Crypto advisory business.
C.
Receiving royalties for a book that was written before becoming registered.
D.
Personally investing in Forex markets.
Question 10

If a fund a broker-dealer is considering selling is called the "MNO Technology Growth Fund", and is invested 50%50\% in technology stock, 20%20\% in technology convertible bonds, and 30%30\% in cash, what concerns might the firm's principal have from a regulatory and ethical standpoint?

A.
There is not enough technology investments.
B.
None, it looks fine.
C.
There is too much cash, in a growth fund the maximum is 5%5\% in cash.
D.
There are too many bonds in a growth fund.
Question 11

When recommending municipal securities, what additional suitability factor most directly affects the tax benefit a customer receives?

A.
Credit of issuer.
B.
Experience of issuer.
C.
State of issue.
D.
Ballot initiatives of issuer.
Question 12

What is a primary difference between mediation and arbitration?

A.
Mediation is mandatory, and arbitration is optional.
B.
Mediation is an option after arbitration, which is mandatory.
C.
Arbitration is mandatory, mediation is optional.
D.
Both mediation and arbitration are required in this industry.
Question 13

A CTR would be filed for;

A.
Transactions exceeding $10,000\$10{,}000 in a single day.
B.
Transactions exceeding $5,000\$5{,}000 in a single day.
C.
Transactions of at least $10,000\$10{,}000 in a single day.
D.
Transactions of at least $5,000\$5{,}000 in a single day.
Question 14

A firm has a control relationship with the issuer of a bond it wants to purchase for one of its clients' discretionary accounts. Under Rule G-22, which of the following steps must the firm take before they can execute the trade?

A.
In a discretionary account, neither the firm nor the rep has to get authorization prior to a trade.
B.
The firm must disclose the control relationship when the discretionary account is opened.
C.
The firm must notify the MSRB each time they do a transaction.
D.
They must disclose the relationship and obtain the client's specific authorization prior to each trade.
Question 15

A general partner of a DPP wishes to raise money publicly. What should the firm advise them they are required to do?

A.
Locate buyers, and most often use Reg D.
B.
Register with the SEC, and use underwriter, sponsor, or syndicator.
C.
Register with the SEC, and then most often use Reg D.
D.
Register only with the state(s) issued in, and use an underwriter, sponsor, or syndicator.
Question 16

A PPN is a type of structured product. Of these choices, which would be the best way for a representative to explain it to prospects?

A.
It is a combination of a corporate bond, and a treasury-linked option.
B.
It is a combination of a zero-coupon bond, and generally an index-linked option.
C.
It is a combination of an equity, along with a put and a call on the equity.
D.
It is a combination of a treasury note, and an index-linked option.
Question 17

A dealer drafts a product advertisement for a state's 529 savings plan that shows the plan's average annual total returns for the past five years. Under the MSRB's advertising rule for municipal fund securities, what must the principal confirm the advertisement includes?

A.
A legend stating that the sponsoring state guarantees the plan's returns
B.
A projection of the plan's average annual returns for the next five years
C.
A legend stating that past performance does not guarantee future results
D.
A statement that the MSRB has reviewed and approved the performance data
Question 18

Under NASDAQ rules, when is the last time a market-on-close order can be placed?

A.
3:50 pm ET
B.
3:58 pm ET
C.
4:00 pm ET
D.
3:55 pm ET
Question 19

FINRA's 5% markup policy applies to which market(s)?

A.
Primary market transactions only.
B.
Exchange transactions only.
C.
Secondary market transactions only.
D.
OTC transactions only.
Question 20

A representative is sending a communication to one of their institutional clients, but they think the institutional client might show retail clients. How should they treat this communication.

A.
As institutional communication, as that is what the principals approved it for.
B.
As institutional communication, unless the institution specifically states they plan to show it to retail investors, then retail communications.
C.
As retail communication.
D.
As institutional communication, but with an added disclaimer and disclosure page.
Question 21

An officer of ACH Inc decides to buy 10,000 shares of the company in January, at $20\$20 a share. In April of that year, after the stock shot up to $30\$30, the officer sells the shares. Provided there is no claim of insider trading, what must happen?

A.
Nothing, it is perfectly legal for officers to profit, provided it was not based on insider information.
B.
Short-swing profit rule, the profit has to be given to the SEC.
C.
Officers are prohibited from trading in their company stock, as it always will be insider trading.
D.
Short-swing profit rule, the profit has to be given to the company.
Question 22

In a single week, a member firm mails a postcard to 600 retail prospects announcing that its downtown branch has moved to a new address and telephone number. The postcard makes no recommendation and promotes no product or service of the firm. How should the principal classify the postcard under FINRA Rule 2210?

A.
A retail communication that a principal must approve before use and then file with FINRA
B.
Correspondence, because it makes no recommendation and promotes no product or service
C.
A retail communication that needs no principal approval before use and no FINRA filing
D.
A retail communication that is exempt from the content standards and from recordkeeping
Question 23

How often does the board of directors meet to reapprove 12b-1 plan fees?

A.
Quarterly
B.
Semi-annually
C.
Annually
D.
Monthly
Question 24

If a trader at firm A contacts a market maker from a different firm, and suggests that the other firm delay reporting a large transaction. Later, the trader from firm A shares an institutional investor's pending strategy with the market maker. How would this best be described?

A.
Initially front running, and then later selling away.
B.
A normal industry situation.
C.
The actions constitute elements of collusion under the rules of FINRA.
D.
Only the sharing of order information is a violation of privacy laws. Delayed reporting is a clerical error.
Question 25

An Energy and Mining MLP received 88%88\% of its income from managing a natural gas pipeline system, and the remainder from fees for unrelated business consulting services. Does this MLP have the qualifications to maintain pass-through status?

A.
Yes, at least 80%80\% must come from qualifying sources.
B.
No, an Energy and Mining MLP can only make money from natural resources.
C.
Yes, MLPs can invest in anything.
D.
No, at least 90%90\% must come from qualifying sources.
Question 26

An investor is trying to calculate the NAV and POP of a mutual fund. The mutual funds has total assets of $146,000,000\$146{,}000{,}000, has total liabilities of $5,000,000\$5{,}000{,}000, and has a sales charge of 4.1%4.1\%. The fund also has 4,100,0004{,}100{,}000 shares outstanding with investors. What is the POP?

A.
$34.39\$34.39
B.
$35.61\$35.61
C.
$35.86\$35.86
D.
$35.90\$35.90
Question 27

Under standard margin rules, if a customer wants to buy $100,000\$100{,}000 in securities, and makes the required margin deposit, what is the maximum market value of the customer's securities the firm may pledge to a bank by rehypothecating the account?

A.
$100,000\$100{,}000
B.
$140,000\$140{,}000
C.
$70,000\$70{,}000
D.
$50,000\$50{,}000
Question 28

What is the primary benefit of being registered as a representative of a FINRA member firm

A.
Access to discount trading.
B.
Ability to be paid a commission on sales.
C.
Access to insider information.
D.
Ability to launder money.
Question 29

Which of the following documents is optional in a margin account?

A.
Hypothecation
B.
Rehypothecation
C.
Credit Agreement
D.
Loan consent
Question 30

What would be the best description of the difference between debenture and bond?

A.
Bonds are generally secured by collateral, while debentures are unsecured.
B.
There is no functional difference.
C.
Debenture is a type of equity, a bond is a type of debt.
D.
Bonds are issued by governments, while debentures are issued by corporations.
Question 31

A research analyst at a member firm has recently completed a strongly negative report on a company, and it is scheduled to be released next week. The analyst told their friend who is a trader at the firm, and that trader immediately starts shorting the stock. What would be the best description of this?

A.
Trading ahead of research reports, and failure of information barriers.
B.
Acceptable positioning of the firm's inventory before the report is released.
C.
Trading ahead of research reports and front running.
D.
Trading ahead of research reports, and inside trading.
Question 32

Client invested $80,000\$80{,}000 into a nonqualified mutual fund account in a single purchase, and has taken every distribution in cash. They are now 68 years old, and the account value is worth $120,000\$120{,}000. If they want to take out $60,000\$60{,}000, how much of that is taxable?

A.
$40,000\$40{,}000
B.
$60,000\$60{,}000
C.
$20,000\$20{,}000
D.
$0\$0
Question 33

In margin accounts, there are a lot of acronyms used in the industry. What is the most common meaning for the acronym "DR"?

A.
Doctor
B.
Discount Rate
C.
Daily Return
D.
Debit Register
Question 34

A stop limit order that has its trigger price hit by the market would do what?

A.
Become a limit order.
B.
Execute immediately at the stop price.
C.
Become a market order.
D.
Get canceled.
Question 35

A broker-dealer is acting as an agent for an institutional investor. They execute transactions for the investor through multiple firms under an RVP arrangement. What would be a good way to describe the mechanics of an RVP transaction?

A.
The broker-dealer receives securities from the agent bank, and makes the cash payment to the bank.
B.
The broker-dealer delivers the securities to the agent bank, and receives cash payment from the bank.
C.
The broker-dealer receives cash payment for the securities from the agent bank, and then delivers the securities to the bank.
D.
The broker-dealer must send a duplicate confirmation statement to the agent bank within 10 business days.
Question 36

A communication sent to many of the firms clients compares variable annuities to bank savings accounts. What else, if anything, must be included?

A.
Nothing else is required.
B.
Only historical performances of both products.
C.
A disclaimer about the bank having FDIC coverage.
D.
Explanation of material differences of both products.
Question 37

Under Regulation A, what is the maximum a company can raise in a Tier 1 offering?

A.
Up to $75m\$75m in a 12-month period
B.
Up to $75m\$75m in a 24-month period
C.
Up to $20m\$20m in a 12-month period
D.
Up to $20m\$20m in a 24-month period
Question 38

Who creates the regulatory element of the continuing education?

A.
The individual firms
B.
The SEC itself
C.
The state administrator
D.
FINRA itself
Question 39

A person has been a registered representative for 3 years at their firm, and then leaves the industry. How long must the firm retain the U4 of the rep, in total?

A.
3 years
B.
4 years
C.
6 years
D.
5 years
Question 40

When an associated person of a firm opens accounts at another member firm, which of the following must occur?

A.
Employing firm must give permission.
B.
Employing firm need only be notified.
C.
Employing firm must get duplicate confirmations.
D.
Employee must close any other accounts.
Question 41

The firm's supervisory control report must be submitted to senior management how often and what does it contain, for a firm with over $200\$200 million in gross revenue?

A.
Annually, system of controls, summary of tests and problems, and potentially amended procedures.
B.
Annually, system of controls, summary of tests and problems, any amended procedures, along with tabulation of complaints, and 6-point review.
C.
Quarterly, system of controls, summary of tests and problems, and potentially amended procedures.
D.
Quarterly, system of controls, summary of tests and problems, any amended procedures, along with tabulation of complaints, and 6-point review.
Question 42

A firm that has 18 registered, how many of them must have been associated with one or more disciplined firms, for the firm to need to put procedures to tape into effect?

A.
4 of the 18.
B.
5 of the 18.
C.
7 of the 18.
D.
8 of the 18.
Question 43

A representative at a member firm receives a $75\$75 gold plated pen with their personal name on it from a rep at a different firm. They received this gift at a local dinner, a representative of that firm was hosting. They provided the same personalized pen, to each rep that showed up. Under G-20, how would this be handled?

A.
Typical "wining and dining", and provided "occasionally", no violations.
B.
The pen is acceptable, but the dinner is a violation of the annual gift limit.
C.
Typical "wining and dining", but the pen is too expensive.
D.
Both the pen and the dinner are violations of the gift rules.
Question 44

A customer telephones the branch to report a new home address, and the registered representative responsible for the customer's individual account updates the account record. Under SEC recordkeeping rules, what must the firm do within 30 days after it receives notice of the change?

A.
Send notice of the change to the old address and to the representative
B.
Send notice of the change to the new address and to the representative
C.
Send the customer a complete copy of the updated account record
D.
Record the change in the file; no notice is required for an address
Question 45

A principal is reviewing a member firm's website for retail investors. The home page carries a readily apparent BrokerCheck link and the plain-text statement "Member FINRA," which is the site's only mention of FINRA and is not hyperlinked. A separate page presents the professional profile of a registered representative who serves retail customers and has no BrokerCheck link. What must the principal require?

A.
A hyperlink to FINRA's website beside the membership statement; the profile page needs no change
B.
A BrokerCheck link on the profile page; the membership statement on the home page needs no change
C.
A BrokerCheck link on every page of the site; the membership statement on the home page needs no change
D.
A hyperlink to FINRA's website beside the membership statement, and a BrokerCheck link on the profile page
Question 46

An investor has a short margin account that has a current SMV of $78,000\$78{,}000 and a CR of $156,000\$156{,}000. If the market value falls to $64,300\$64{,}300, how much new SMA is created?

A.
$13,700\$13{,}700
B.
$6,850\$6{,}850
C.
$20,550\$20{,}550
D.
−$32,150-\$32{,}150
Question 47

A level 2, NYSE circuit breaker, is triggered with what size drop?

A.
7%7\%
B.
13%13\%
C.
20%20\%
D.
10%10\%
Question 48

Under current FINRA rules, what is the time for regular way settlement?

A.
Same day
B.
T+2
C.
T+3
D.
T+1
Question 49

A representative has worked with several other firms to help their clients, and those firms send them gifts. This year they received a $125\$125 engraved pen, a $150\$150 gift certificate to a local restaurant, and a glass vase worth $180\$180. From an oversight perspective, what would the concerns be.

A.
The total value of the gifts is over the $300\$300 annual gift limit.
B.
No real concerns, provided they were from separate firms.
C.
Gifts up to the limit may only be accepted from one firm in any given year.
D.
None of these would qualify as gifts.
Question 50

A representative was associated with a firm that has now been expelled by FINRA for sales practice violations. The representative in question, was not personally charged in any matter, but was employed there for 25 months. Does this create any issues?

A.
No, they were not personally charged, so there would be no consequences for them.
B.
No, it is not within the limit; if the rep has been there 1 year or less, they would also have been expelled.
C.
Yes, as a representative of an expelled firm, they have a statutory disqualification as a result.
D.
Yes, in that they would qualify as having worked for a disciplined firm for taping rules.
Question 51

A DPP is conducting a public offering and engages an underwriter to assist them. If the offering is for a total valuation of $75,000,000\$75{,}000{,}000, what is the maximum compensation the underwriter can receive?

A.
$3,750,000\$3{,}750{,}000.
B.
$5,625,000\$5{,}625{,}000.
C.
$7,500,000\$7{,}500{,}000.
D.
$9,000,000\$9{,}000{,}000.
Question 52

A SAR must be filed for a suspicious transaction, or pattern of transactions, that equals or exceeds what value?

A.
$10,000.01\$10{,}000.01
B.
$5,000\$5{,}000
C.
$10,000\$10{,}000
D.
$5,000.01\$5{,}000.01
Question 53

Mutual funds typically make what type of distributions?

A.
Quarterly capital gains and annual income.
B.
Monthly income and annual capital gains.
C.
Funds offer options for investors to choose.
D.
Quarterly income and annual capital gains.
Question 54

Pegging, when it comes to market manipulation, refers to;

A.
Attempting to prevent a stock from rising above a predetermined value.
B.
Attempting to prevent a stock from falling below a predetermined value.
C.
Listing on a public board in the office what securities are most profitable to sell.
D.
Limiting the spread between the bid and ask prices of the investment.
Question 55

A customer deposits $9,500 in currency into a brokerage account on each of five consecutive business days. The customer tells the registered representative that the deposits are kept small so the firm will not have to report them. How should the principal reviewing the activity treat it?

A.
As lawful, because no single day's currency exceeds the reporting threshold
B.
As requiring a currency transaction report for each of the five deposits
C.
As structuring, which is illegal and calls for a suspicious activity report
D.
As requiring one currency transaction report for the five-day total
Question 56

Under MSRB Rule G-26, a carrying firm has how many days after it validates the transfer request, to complete the transfer?

A.
2 business days.
B.
3 business days.
C.
1 business day.
D.
4 business days.
Question 57

Once a firm has been notified, how many days does it have to put into effect taping procedures?

A.
30 days
B.
180 days
C.
15 days
D.
60 days
Question 58

A person registered with a Series 7 license has been asked to supervise equity traders at the firm. What additional licenses does this person need?

A.
Series 26
B.
Series 4
C.
Series 24 and Series 57
D.
No additional license, the Series 7 includes supervision
Question 59

The Series 6 license qualifies an individual to do what?

A.
Act as a registered representative and sell most securities.
B.
Act as a registered representative and sell investment company securities.
C.
Act as a registered representative and sell municipal securities
D.
Act as a registered representative and sell investment banking products.
Question 60

Which Nasdaq tier is usually where small-cap companies and start-ups would be listed?

A.
Nasdaq Capital Select Market
B.
Nasdaq Capital Market
C.
Nasdaq Global Market
D.
Nasdaq Select Market
Question 61

A broker-dealer that carries customer accounts ends its fiscal year on December 31. It sends its statement of financial condition to customers in a separate mailing, not with their quarterly account statements, and does not use the net capital summary alternative. Under SEC Rule 17a-5(c), within how many days after the fiscal year-end must it furnish the audited statement?

A.
65 days
B.
75 days
C.
105 days
D.
90 days
Question 62

What are the official regulated types of communications?

A.
Retail, Institutional, and Internal
B.
Public, Private, and Digital
C.
Internal, External, and Eternal.
D.
Correspondence, Retail, and Institutional
Question 63

How do we calculate the equity percentage in a short margin account?

A.
EquitySMV\frac{Equity}{SMV}
B.
SMVEquity\frac{SMV}{Equity}
C.
DRSMV\frac{DR}{SMV}
D.
EquityCR\frac{Equity}{CR}
Question 64

A new associate opens an account at another broker-dealer in order to purchase a variable annuity for their retirement, and a 529 for their child. What is required?

A.
Permission from the employing firm for both of them.
B.
Notification to the employing firm for both of them.
C.
Nothing is required to be done.
D.
Duplicate confirmation and trades for both accounts.
Question 65

A client purchased 157 shares of stock when the price was $58.80\$58.80 a share, and they make the required deposit. If the share price later goes to $62.92\$62.92 a share, what is the excess equity in the client's account?

A.
$323.42\$323.42
B.
$646.84\$646.84
C.
$168.00\$168.00
D.
$923.16\$923.16
Question 66

What can make wash trades and matched orders so difficult to detect?

A.
They are often done through the same broker dealer.
B.
They are often spread across different firms and markets.
C.
They are often done in different securities.
D.
They are often done after hours.
Question 67

A 46 year old client wants to close their only Roth IRA, which is at the firm, and withdraw the whole balance. The account is worth $10,000\$10{,}000, $7,000\$7{,}000 of which is the client's contributions, $3,000\$3{,}000 is earnings. How is this handled?

A.
All $10,000\$10{,}000 is taxed and potentially penalized.
B.
Only $3,000\$3{,}000 is taxed and potentially penalized.
C.
All $10,000\$10{,}000 is taxed, only $3,000\$3{,}000 has an additional penalty.
D.
All $10,000\$10{,}000 is potentially penalized, only $3,000\$3{,}000 is additionally taxed as gain.
Question 68

An investor wants to purchase shares in a mutual fund. What price will the purchase be effected?

A.
Based on the next calculated NAV.
B.
Based on the previously calculated NAV.
C.
At the next available price on the market.
D.
Based on NAV plus a markup.
Question 69

Which class of mutual funds are most likely to be redeemed for less than NAV?

A.
B-Shares
B.
A-Shares
C.
C-Shares
D.
A-, B-, and C-Shares
Question 70

An investor files an error account dispute after their firm purchased 1200 shares of MNO, when they actually placed an order for only 200 shares. How will this be resolved.

A.
Unfortunately, once an order is executed, it cannot be reversed.
B.
The entire order of 1200 shares will be reversed and refunded, returning the investor to the starting point, and the order will need to be resubmitted.
C.
The firm's error account will purchase the 1000 extra shares and sell them themselves, putting the client at their supposed position.
D.
The investor and their firm must split the extra 1000 shares, each taking part responsibility for the error.
Question 71

A company conducting a PIPE transaction is trying to raise capital. Which of these best describes the key features of a PIPE?

A.
A private sale directly from one investor to another investor.
B.
A public sale of a privately held security.
C.
A private sale directly from issuer to private investor.
D.
A government-sponsored investment program.
Question 72

Does a person holding a Series 65, and with no other qualifications, qualify as an accredited investor?

A.
No, the Series 65 it not one of the specific certifications.
B.
Yes, all FINRA-registered representatives are accredited investors.
C.
Yes, the Series 65 is one of the specific certifications.
D.
Yes, but only involving offerings they are an investment advisor in relation to.
Question 73

Under Regulation BI, which clients are going to be protected by its requirements?

A.
Institutional customers only.
B.
Retail customers only.
C.
Retail and institutional customers.
D.
All customers of the firm.
Question 74

A broker-dealer is running a seminar for retail investors, and the rep has a slideshow for the seminar. After the slideshow, there will be a question-and-answer period. How would this be treated?

A.
The entire seminar is retail communications.
B.
The slideshow is communications, and the Q&A is a public appearance.
C.
The entire seminar is a public appearance.
D.
Only any handouts used in the seminar would be considered retail communications.
Question 75

An investor is watching a stock trading at $78\$78 that has a technical resistance of $80\$80. The investor wants to buy the stock only if it breaks through that resistance. Which order should be entered?

A.
Buy stop $81\$81
B.
Buy stop $79\$79
C.
Buy limit $79\$79
D.
Buy limit $81\$81
Question 76

In a short margin account, what is the minimum equity, according to FINRA?

A.
30%30\%
B.
25%25\%
C.
50%50\%
D.
100%100\%
Question 77

A married couple opens a tenants in common account. If the wife want to sell 500 shares without telling her husband, can she?

A.
No, all tenants must agree before any transaction.
B.
Yes, only closing positions (selling owned shared, buying borrowed shares) can be done by any tenant.
C.
Yes, any owner can transact independently.
D.
Depends, if the transaction is under the SEC minimum (currently $15,000\$15{,}000), any tenant can act alone.
Question 78

A principal reviews the firm's procedures for accounts opened for individual customers to whom the firm makes recommendations. Under SEC recordkeeping rules, when must the firm first furnish the customer a copy of the account record, and how often after that?

A.
Within 30 days of opening, then at least every 12 months
B.
Within 30 days of opening, then at least every 36 months
C.
Within 15 days of opening, then at least every 36 months
D.
Within 60 days of opening, then at least every 24 months
Question 79

A registered representative at Firm A has opened an account at Outside Firm. Firm A has notified Outside Firm they want duplicate confirmations and they start being sent. 9 months later the representative leaves Firm A and moves to Firm B. What happens to the duplicate confirmation arrangement?

A.
Firm B has to request from Outside Firm for duplicates.
B.
Firm B, as the employing firm, will continue to get duplicates until they opt out.
C.
Firm A will continue to get the duplicate confirmation and will forward them to Firm B.
D.
FINRA automatically notifies Outside Firm and switches the delivery information.
Question 80

A customer comes to a firm and they claim to be an SMMP. The firm believes that the customer can evaluate risks independently, but they have not agreed to exercise independent judgement. Which protections would apply in this situation?

A.
SMMP status fully applies.
B.
SMMP status does not apply.
C.
SMMP status partially applies, disclosure is waived.
D.
SMMP status would apply, provided they have assets in excess of $50\$50 million.
Question 81

Which of the following is a non-punitive regulatory action that can be done to a natural person?

A.
Suspension
B.
Fining
C.
Cancellation
D.
Revocation
Question 82

A firm participating as a selling group member participated in a recent IPO. Under FINRA Rule 2241, how long must the firm wait before first publishing a research report on the company?

A.
3 days after IPO date
B.
Selling group members have no restrictions, only managers
C.
25 days after IPO date
D.
10 days after IPO date
Question 83

A client purchased 383 shares of stock, when the current market price was $42.10\$42.10. They made the standard margin deposit. What is the highest price, in whole cents, the stock could fall to at which a maintenance call would be required to be made?

A.
$28.06\$28.06
B.
$24.06\$24.06
C.
$31.58\$31.58
D.
$27.90\$27.90
Question 84

A principal reviews a new account application for an individual who lives in a house in Columbus. The only address on the application is a P.O. box, where the customer prefers to receive mail. Under the customer identification program rule, what must the firm obtain before opening the account?

A.
Nothing more; the P.O. box serves as the required address
B.
A residential or business street address for the customer
C.
An Army or Fleet Post Office box number for the customer
D.
A relative's street address in place of the customer's own
Question 85

Under MSRB rules, which of the following situations, would most likely be considered a valid reason for a carrying firm to protest a transfer request?

A.
They do not think it is in the client's best interest.
B.
They just don't want to.
C.
The account has an outstanding margin balance.
D.
The account name or number is not on file.
Question 86

Which of the following would differentiate a limit order and stop order, both set at $50\$50, when the market was $60\$60, and the market now hits $50\$50.

A.
Both would execute shortly after.
B.
Neither might execute shortly after.
C.
The limit order will execute shortly after, the stop may not.
D.
The stop order will execute shortly after, the limit may not.
Question 87

A broker-dealer is involved in a riskless transaction with a client. Under the 5% policy, how would this be handled?

A.
The markup for the sale, and the markdown for the purchase are independent trades, and each should not be in excess of 5%5\%.
B.
Riskless transactions are exempt from the 5% policy, and can be of any level of charge. It should still be reasonable based on services provided.
C.
The markup for the sale is based on the price paid on the open market, not any previous inventory costs, and the markup on that should not exceed 5%5\%.
D.
As an agency transaction, this would not deal with the 5% policy on markups and markdowns; Only commission rules apply.
Question 88

The Series 39 is required for what role?

A.
Registered options principal
B.
General securities principal
C.
Registered supervisory analyst
D.
Registered DPP principal
Question 89

All of the following statements about mutual funds in margin accounts would be incorrect for a representative to tell a client, except;

A.
Mutual funds may be bought and sold on margin, but cannot be used as collateral.
B.
Mutual funds may never be in a margin account.
C.
Mutual funds are primarily bought in margin accounts.
D.
Mutual funds may be used as collateral, after being held for 30 days.
Question 90

How many forms of continuing education would the simplest registered principal license require each year?

A.
33
B.
22
C.
11
D.
00
Question 91

A registered representative recommends an investment to a customer. The only customer-specific information in the account record is that the customer is in the highest federal income tax bracket. What should the principal reviewing the recommendation conclude?

A.
Municipal bonds are suitable, because tax-exempt interest is the controlling consideration for a customer in the highest tax bracket.
B.
Treasury securities are suitable, because their interest is exempt from state and local income tax for every customer.
C.
No investment can be identified as suitable, because tax status is only one element of the investment profile and the remaining elements are missing.
D.
Common stock is suitable, because long-term capital gains are taxed at rates below the customer's ordinary income rate.
Question 92

An affiliate of a firm holds 3%3\% of the outstanding shares of the company. The last 6 weeks of average volume, in order from most recent (in thousands), were 1,0051{,}005, 874874, 865865, 727727, 785785, and 683683. If the firm has a total of 100 million shares outstanding, what is the maximum number of shares this person can sell in any three-month period under Rule 144?

A.
765,000765{,}000 shares
B.
1,000,0001{,}000{,}000 shares
C.
867,750867{,}750 shares
D.
No limit, as they own less than 10%10\% of the shares.
Question 93

The level 2 Nasdaq quote shows what information about the security?

A.
All market maker quotes, sizes, and the ability to edit them.
B.
All market maker quotes, and sizes.
C.
The inside quote and corresponding sizes.
D.
Only the last sale price and volume.
Question 94

An investor has a long margin account that has a current LMV of $87,000\$87{,}000 and a DR of $40,000\$40{,}000. If the market value rises to $92,400\$92{,}400, how much new SMA is created?

A.
$5,400\$5{,}400
B.
$2,700\$2{,}700
C.
$7,100\$7{,}100
D.
$14,200\$14{,}200
Question 95

Which of the following investments would likely be a good suggestion for someone looking to preserve their capital.

A.
Treasury bonds and municipal bonds
B.
Money market instruments
C.
Income bonds
D.
Variable annuities
Question 96

What is SMA?

A.
An account for holding marginable assets.
B.
Credit account created from excess equity.
C.
A separate account for holding margin call notices.
D.
A reserve account connected to margin accounts.
Question 97

What is the primary difference between the Series 4, and the Series 24 licenses, in terms of options supervision?

A.
The Series 24 is specifically options supervision and sales, while the Series 4 is broader supervision.
B.
Only the Series 24 allows supervision of options.
C.
The Series 4 is specifically options supervision and sales, while the Series 24 is broader supervision.
D.
The Series 24 deals with all options, while the Series 4 deals with exchange listed options.
Question 98

A client wants to buy 5000 shares at $45\$45 immediately. The representative was only able to find 4000 shares at $45\$45 at the current moment. The client did specify an FOK order. What happens.

A.
The 4000 shares are purchased for the client, 1000 are killed.
B.
The 4000 shares are purchased for the client, and the remaining shares in the order are held until a price of $45\$45 can be obtained.
C.
Since all 5000 shares were not able to be purchased immediately, the entire order is canceled.
D.
The representative has until the end of the day (not GTC) to find all 5000 shares in 1 single trade. They cannot do partials. If by the end of they day they can't be found, the order is killed.
Question 99

How long must complaints be kept by MSRB rules?

A.
6 years
B.
5 years
C.
4 years
D.
3 years
Question 100

A firm acting in an agency capacity would be compensated in which way?

A.
Markup or markdown
B.
Fixed fee
C.
Broker-dealers are not compensated when acting in a principal capacity.
D.
Commission
Question 101

What does it mean for a firm to file pre- versus post-use?

A.
Pre-use filing means giving it to FINRA at least 10 business days before the principal approves it, Post-use filing means giving it to FINRA at least 10 business days after principal approves it.
B.
Pre-use filing means principal approval before use, Post-use filing means principal approval after use.
C.
Pre-use filing means given to FINRA at least 10 business days before clients, Post-use filing means giving it to FINRA within 10 business days of first use.
D.
They are the same process, just described differently based on different firms.
Question 102

An elderly client of the firm with a very low risk tolerance has asked their representative to purchase a speculative security. If the representative believes that the investment is not suitable, what should the rep do?

A.
Execute the trade without raising the concern, as the client has made their request.
B.
Enter the order marked solicited, so that it gets a suitability review.
C.
Explain the concern, and if the client insists, enter the order marked unsolicited.
D.
Refuse to execute the order under any circumstances.
Question 103

What is a stock power?

A.
Voting rights associated with equity ownership.
B.
Separate legal document used to transfer physical securities.
C.
Power of attorney used to vote in place of someone else.
D.
Written authorization in margin account to borrow stock.
Question 104

Under FINRA Rule 2165, a specified adult would be best defined as;

A.
Only a client who is age 65 or older.
B.
Any client that has a designated contact person.
C.
Someone who could be more easily taken advantage of.
D.
Any client, diagnosed by a competent jurisdiction, that the client is incapacitated.
Question 105

The principal of an established member firm is deciding which of four new communications must be filed with FINRA. Which one is excluded from the filing requirements?

A.
A newspaper advertisement that promotes a specific mutual fund to investors
B.
A mailer to 500 retail investors about a public direct participation program
C.
A web page for retail investors about a registered collateralized mortgage obligation
D.
A press release that is made available only to members of the media
Question 106

Under MSRB Rule G-30, for an agency transaction in a municipal security, or municipal securities, the commission charged must be based on which factors?

A.
5% policy.
B.
A fixed percentage of 11-3%3\% depending on additional details.
C.
The MSRB's published commission schedule based on security type and market price.
D.
Multiple, but basically fairness and reasonableness.
Question 107

A customer is asking their representative about something they heard on the news. They ask the representative, "what is the difference between a wash trade, and a wash sale?" What would be the best thing for the representative to respond?

A.
Wash sales involve buying and selling the same security at the same time, and wash trading involves repurchasing a sold security for which they had a loss on.
B.
They are synonyms; they mean the same thing.
C.
Wash trading involves no change of beneficial ownership, a wash sale involves a realized capital loss being disallowed.
D.
Wash sales are an unethical practice used to commit fraud, and wash trading is a risky investment approach, but is legal and ethical.
Question 108

What is the page limit for Form CRS?

A.
3 pages
B.
2 pages
C.
There is no page limit
D.
1 page
Question 109

If the Level 2 quote with 4 market makers is given below, what is the Level 1 quote?
MM1: $53.66\$53.66-$55.19\$55.19 (8x1)
MM2: $53.49\$53.49-$55.54\$55.54 (4x7)
MM3: $53.94\$53.94-$55.29\$55.29 (6x2)
MM4: $53.90\$53.90-$56.22\$56.22 (5x9)

A.
$53.94\$53.94-$56.22\$56.22 (6x9)
B.
$53.94\$53.94-$55.19\$55.19 (6x1)
C.
$53.49\$53.49-$55.19\$55.19 (4x1)
D.
$53.49\$53.49-$56.22\$56.22 (4x9)
Question 110

What is a minor rule violation?

A.
A violation where FINRA imposes a fine of at most $2,500\$2{,}500.
B.
A violation where FINRA imposes a fine of at most $5,000\$5{,}000.
C.
A violation where FINRA imposes a fine of at most $1,000\$1{,}000.
D.
A non-punitive warning system.
Question 111

In a transaction for 45 shares of stock, the seller attempts to deliver 1 certificate for 45 shares. Is this acceptable under good delivery.

A.
No, for good delivery they must be in 100 share increments.
B.
Yes, this is good delivery.
C.
This is good delivery, but only if the firm buys the other 55 for inventory.
D.
45 shares is an odd lot, and there are no good delivery rules for odd lots.
Question 112

An investor recently completed a 60-day rollover from one IRA into another IRA, 7 months ago. They want to do another 60-day rollover from the IRA that received the money. Is this permissible?

A.
Yes, new money can always be added.
B.
No, each account can only have one rollover involved.
C.
No, a rollover can only be done once every rolling 12 months.
D.
Yes, with principal approval.
Question 113

In a TIC, if one of the tenants dies, who or what gets their share of the account?

A.
The other tenant(s)
B.
The SEC
C.
The firm needs to follow the trading instructions provided.
D.
Their estate/children
Question 114

For an OBA, what is required of the registered person?

A.
Oral notification.
B.
Written permission.
C.
Oral permission.
D.
Written notification.
Question 115

A rep at the firm has recently discovered that one of their clients has been significantly overstating their net worth on the account forms. The representative has been making recommendations based on that stated information. What are likely the repercussions and requirements on the representative?

A.
The rep has violated KYC, should update the KYC, and report the violation to their supervisor or principal.
B.
The rep has done nothing wrong, but should update the KYC.
C.
The rep has done nothing wrong, and KYC is simply what the customer reports, if the customer wants incorrect data, it will stay and be the basis of recommendations.
D.
The rep likely did not violate KYC, and the client bears full responsibility for all information.
Question 116

A dealer's marketing staff drafts a newspaper advertisement for a new issue of municipal revenue bonds that the dealer is offering to retail investors. Under MSRB Rule G-21, what approval does the advertisement need?

A.
Written approval by a registered options principal or securities trader principal before first use
B.
Written approval by the MSRB's staff at least 10 business days before first use
C.
Written approval by a municipal securities principal or general securities principal before first use
D.
Review by a municipal securities principal within 10 business days after first use
Question 117

What does customer-specific suitability refer to?

A.
Whether the recommendation is suitable for some customers.
B.
Whether the recommendation is appropriate for the client being talked to.
C.
Whether the total number and frequency of trades is excessive.
D.
Whether the mathematical measurement of the recommendation matches the risk tolerance.
Question 118

On June 3rd, an investor purchased 6%6\% of the outstanding shares of ABC Inc. On October 2nd they purchased an additional 6%6\% of the shares. By when must the investor file a Form 3 with the SEC?

A.
By October 12th.
B.
By June 13th.
C.
They don't have to, at least not yet.
D.
Anytime after their June 3rd purchase, but before they purchased in October.
Question 119

A 67 year old client wants to know how much they can contribute to their IRA from their employment. What is the best answer?

A.
$8,600\$8{,}600 this year.
B.
$7,500\$7{,}500 this year.
C.
$8,500\$8{,}500 this year.
D.
They are too old to contribute this year.
Question 120

A principal reviews new account documents for a privately held corporation opening a cash account to trade equities. The file already holds the financial and investment objective information the firm collects for any customer. Because the customer is a legal entity and not a natural person, which additional information must the firm maintain for the account?

A.
The entity's most recent audited financial statements
B.
A risk tolerance questionnaire completed by each officer
C.
A margin agreement signed by an officer of the entity
D.
The names of the persons authorized to trade for it
Question 121

Under Regulation D, what is the maximum number of non-accredited investors that can participate in a 506(c) offering?

A.
35
B.
unlimited
C.
10
D.
0
Question 122

Which of the following would be considered a financial consideration of a potential client?

A.
How long until kids going to college.
B.
Monthly mortgage payment.
C.
How many days of vacation to use this year.
D.
How many children they have.
Question 123

Which of the following would be prohibited to do when it comes to how a registered representative handles customer funds.

A.
Recommending a diverse portfolio for all investors.
B.
Telling a client they can't lose money in a specific security.
C.
Sending clients monthly statements instead of quarterly.
D.
Discussing a client's objectives on an annual basis.
Question 124

A General Securities Sales Supervisor is supervising a branch office of the company. Which of the following activities would they not be able to perform?

A.
Approving brokerage accounts.
B.
Supervising an underwriting lead by the firm.
C.
Training representatives on product knowledge.
D.
Approving communications.
Question 125

Correspondence is sent to how many people in a 30 calendar day period?

A.
More than 2525
B.
More than 2626
C.
11-2626
D.
11-2525
Question 126

Under Regulation SHO location requirement, which of the following would satisfy the requirement before execution of the transaction?

A.
The broker-dealer has bought this security for this customer in the past.
B.
The broker-dealer has borrowed the securities.
C.
The broker-dealer has clients with the security in margin accounts.
D.
The broker-dealer recently sold the security short for another client.
Question 127

What is the penalty for violating the national Do-Not-Call list rules at the federal level?

A.
A warning letter for first time offenders.
B.
$10s of thousands in fines.
C.
Automatic license suspension.
D.
$10s of thousands in fines, and potential jail time.
Question 128

If a client asks one of the representatives at a member firm about investing in physical gold in the client's traditional IRA, what should the response of the rep be?

A.
Company recommended gold companies.
B.
Gold is prohibited in IRAs, and the representative should explain that to the customer.
C.
Gold can only be held in Roth IRAs, and the rep should suggest the client open a Roth IRA in addition to the traditional IRA.
D.
Gold can be held, but due to the tax deferral nature, there is little benefit.
Question 129

A closed-end fund raised $1\$1 billion, and issued 50 million shares. If one year later, the NAV is $30\$30, but the shares are trading at $28\$28, what would explain this?

A.
They are in violation of NYSE and SEC regulations.
B.
There must have been an error on reporting, NAV is $28\$28, and the trading price is $30\$30.
C.
They simply are giving a discount to encourage investing.
D.
It is a closed end fund.
Question 130

A firm has linked from its website to a third-party article containing statements that the firm endorses. The article includes projections that would not be allowed in the firm's own communications. Has the firm violated any rules?

A.
Yes, by linking from their site, it has to follow their rules.
B.
No, the firm did not author the article.
C.
Potentially, but not in this case. It would be required if posted on social media.
D.
No, as third-party articles are always exempt from the communication rules of the firm.
Question 131

What is the annual participation fee for the MQP?

A.
$500\$500
B.
$50\$50
C.
$100\$100
D.
$250\$250
Question 132

A stock that is outside the Limit Up-Limit Down Plan, and has been trading at $18.25\$18.25 throughout the regular trading session, suddenly has a single reported trade of $17.50\$17.50. A trading center is considering breaking the trade. Under the rules for clearly erroneous transactions, does this trade qualify?

A.
Yes, it is more than the 5%5\% required to break the trade.
B.
Yes, it is more than the 10%10\% required to break a trade.
C.
No, SEC needs to decide if the trade can be broken.
D.
No, it is less than the 10%10\% required to break a trade.
Question 133

Who is required to review all retail communications before they can be sent to clients?

A.
Supervisors or principals.
B.
Supervisors only.
C.
Representatives managing branch offices.
D.
Principals only.
Question 134

What category of firms could the Taping Rule apply to?

A.
All general securities broker-dealers, but no other firms.
B.
Only firms with more than 20 registered persons.
C.
Only newly established firms.
D.
All FINRA member firms.
Question 135

An IOC order requires what combination of conditions?

A.
Immediate execution in full.
B.
Delayed execution in full.
C.
Something other than execution time or full or partial fulfillment.
D.
Immediate execution, potentially with partial fulfillment.
Question 136

A principal is reviewing a newsletter that will go to 300 retail customers. The member firm's name, under which it conducts its broker-dealer business, is ABC Securities; the public also commonly knows the firm by the trade name ABC Direct. Under FINRA's content standards, how must the newsletter identify the firm?

A.
ABC Securities must be named prominently; the trade name may not appear.
B.
The trade name alone is sufficient, because the public knows the firm by it.
C.
The branch manager's name alone is sufficient, because the manager is registered.
D.
ABC Securities must be named prominently; the trade name may also appear.
Question 137

Which of the following properly explains bond covenants?

A.
Covenants are legally enforceable rules and conditions
B.
Covenants are suggestions for the issuer to follow, to help reassure the investor.
C.
Negative covenants are a promise, such as the promise they have to pay the interest.
D.
Positive covenants are restrictions that the issuer agrees to put on itself to reassure the investors.
Question 138

If a firm discovers that securities have gone missing, and does not suspect foul play, what would be the order of actions?

A.
Investigate for 2 business days, and if not found, report to SIC and the transfer agent.
B.
Investigate for 2 business days, and if not found, report to SIC, FBI, and the transfer agent.
C.
Immediately report to FBI, SIC, and the transfer agent.
D.
Investigate for 3 business days, and if not found, report to SIC, and the transfer agent.
Question 139

What is the formula used for calculating equity in a short margin account?

A.
EQ=LMV−DREQ=LMV-DR
B.
EQ=CR+SMVEQ=CR+SMV
C.
EQ=SMV−CREQ=SMV-CR
D.
EQ=CR−SMVEQ=CR-SMV
Question 140

When a retail communication discusses tax-deferred investments, what disclosure would be required?

A.
It must disclose that tax-deferred and tax-exempt mean the same thing.
B.
It must disclose the specific state it is tax-deferred in.
C.
No special disclosure required, as long as "deferred" is listed.
D.
It must disclose that it may be owed at a later date.
Question 141

The initial Regulation T margin deposit is;

A.
25%25\% for long, 30%30\% for short
B.
25%25\% for both
C.
50%50\% for both
D.
30%30\% for both
Question 142

An investor holds warrants that were issued 2 years ago. The warrants allow the investor to purchase the stock at $90\$90 per share. The current market price is $85\$85 per share. Which statement would best describe the situation?

A.
They have expired as they are older than 1 year.
B.
It would not be good to exercise, but waiting is an option.
C.
They are effectively in-the-money and could be exercised for a profit.
D.
They should be allowed to expired, as they are out-of-the-money.
Question 143

A client of the firm has recently turned 73, and is asking about how RMDs work, as the client has both a Roth and a Traditional IRA at the firm. The best explanation would be;

A.
Traditional IRAs have RMDs, and the Roth does not.
B.
Traditional IRAs do not have RMDs, but the Roth does.
C.
Both Traditional IRAs and Roth IRAs have RMDs, and the amount can be taken from either.
D.
Both Traditional IRAs and Roth IRAs have RMDs, and the individual amount from each is calculated.
Question 144

What is the timeline for an associated person responding to a FINRA disciplinary complaint?

A.
The person has 25 days to respond, if they don't, they will be given 14 additional days, if they still don't they will be given a final 10 days, and if after that they don't, they are found guilty.
B.
The person has 25 days to respond, if they don't they will be given 14 additional days, and if they still don't they are found guilty.
C.
The person has 14 days to respond, if they don't they will be given 25 additional days, and if they still don't, they will be found guilty.
D.
The person will be given 25 days to respond, and if they don't they will be found guilty.
Question 145

How long are any CTR forms retained for?

A.
5 years
B.
6 years
C.
Forever
D.
3 years
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