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NCLEX practice test

Take Achievable's free NCLEX practice test with 70 questions and detailed explanations.
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Free NCLEX practice test

Before you begin
70 questions•5 hr time limit•100% free

This free NCLEX practice test simulates the actual test experience to help you prepare for exam day. Questions are designed to match the real NCLEX test format, difficulty, and time constraints. Your score is broken out by the 8 NCLEX client needs and the case studies, so you can see where to focus. Once you select an answer, it's locked in. Questions with more than one part lock in when you submit them. Your progress is saved automatically, so you can return anytime. Good luck!

Solve each of the NCLEX practice test questions below to get a feel for what to expect on the actual NCLEX exam. Achievable's free NCLEX practice questions are scored instantly, providing the correct answer along with an easy to understand explanation. Get started on the path to passing the NCLEX exam by solving 70 NCLEX exam sample questions.
Question 1

The charge nurse receives reports on four clients at the start of the shift. All require nursing intervention. Using the ABC prioritization framework, which client should be seen first?

A.
A 55-year-old post-operative client with a blood pressure of 90/58 mmHg and a heart rate of 112 bpm
B.
A 60-year-old with a urinary tract infection who has a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F) and reports chills
C.
A 49-year-old with a femur fracture who has not voided in 8 hours and reports lower abdominal discomfort
D.
A 38-year-old with anaphylaxis who is receiving epinephrine and reports that throat tightness is worsening despite treatment
Question 2

The nurse is beginning the evening shift on a medical unit. Drag each client to the correct priority level based on current assessment data.

Drag each item to the correct category.

Drag an option into place, or select it and then choose where it goes.

Options
Urgent- assess within 15-60 minutes
Life threatening- intervene immediately
Stable- routine schedule
Question 3

The charge nurse is assigning priority levels at the start of the shift. For each client finding, select the priority tier that best applies using the ABCs framework.

For each row, select one option.

FindingIntervene nowRoutine careAssess within 15 min
Client receiving blood transfusion who develops sudden back pain, hematuria, and fever
Client post-appendectomy day 2 requesting scheduled oral analgesic for pain rated 4/10
Client with pneumonia: SpO2 dropped from 95% to 87% on room air over the past 20 minutes
Client with heart failure: mild ankle edema unchanged, SpO2 95% on room air, no dyspnea
Question 4

The nurse is reviewing the pre-operative chart for a client scheduled for a right inguinal hernia repair. Read the following informed consent note and click to highlight every phrase that contains a deficiency requiring correction before the procedure can proceed.

Click to highlight the 4 findings representing errors or rights violations.

Informed consent obtained by Dr. Halvorsen for left inguinal hernia repair. Client verbally confirmed understanding of the procedure and stated he had no further questions. Consent form signed by client. Witness signature: R. Ng, RN. Date of consent: blank. Time of consent: blank. Interpreter services not documented despite the client's primary language being Portuguese. Risks discussed: bleeding, infection, and anesthesia reaction. The client was alert and oriented at the time of consent.

Question 5

A 68-year-old client is recovering from a left-hemisphere stroke with residual right-sided weakness. The client reports difficulty bathing, dressing, and preparing meals independently.

Which referral should the nurse initiate first?

A.
Physical therapy
B.
Occupational therapy
C.
Speech-language therapy
D.
Social work
Question 6

During a home health visit, a nurse notices bruising in various stages of healing on an 80-year-old client with dementia. The client's adult child is the sole caregiver and denies any injury.

Which action should the nurse take?

A.
Confront the caregiver directly and document their denial
B.
Report the suspicion of elder abuse to the appropriate state protective agency
C.
Contact the primary care physician and defer reporting to them
D.
Document the findings and monitor for additional signs before reporting
Question 7

A nurse is preparing to care for a client admitted with influenza.

Which personal protective equipment is required before entering the room?

A.
N95 respirator, gloves, gown, and eye protection
B.
Surgical mask and gloves
C.
Gloves and gown only
D.
No PPE required as long as the nurse received the influenza vaccine
Question 8

A nurse is applying sterile gloves using open technique.

After donning the first glove, the nurse's next correct action is which of the following?

A.
Use ungloved thumb and index finger to pick up the second glove
B.
Place the gloved hand flat on the sterile field while donning the second glove
C.
Ask a colleague to hold the second glove open so the hand can slide in
D.
Slide the gloved hand under the cuff of the second glove, pulling onto the ungloved hand
Question 9

A 74-year-old client with Parkinson's disease is admitted for medication adjustment. The client has a Morse Fall Scale score of 75 and has experienced two freezing episodes during ambulation today.

Which safety device intervention is the priority?

A.
Apply non-slip textured footwear before any mobility attempt
B.
Apply bilateral soft wrist restraints at night to prevent unsupervised ambulation
C.
Place a standard call light within reach and instruct the client to call before standing
D.
Keep the bed in the highest position so the client recognizes the height as a deterrent to standing
Question 10

A chemical plant explosion releases a toxic gas cloud. Twelve workers arrive at the emergency department simultaneously. One worker is unconscious with no spontaneous breathing after airway repositioning and no palpable pulse. A second worker is confused, breathing at 28 breaths per minute, with an SpO2 of 88%.

Using START triage, which classification is correct for these two clients?

A.
Worker 1: red tag (immediate); Worker 2: yellow tag (delayed)
B.
Worker 1: black tag (expectant); Worker 2: red tag (immediate)
C.
Worker 1: black tag (expectant); Worker 2: yellow tag (delayed)
D.
Worker 1: red tag (immediate); Worker 2: black tag (expectant)
Question 11

During a busy shift, the nurse manager asks the RN to orient a first-day student nurse to the unit and allow the student to perform a physical assessment independently on one of the RN's assigned clients. The RN's client load is heavy and the RN is unable to directly supervise the student. Which response by the RN is most appropriate?

A.
Allow the student to assess a stable client and review their findings after the assessment is complete
B.
Assign the student to shadow the UAP for skills practice until the RN is available to supervise
C.
Explain to the manager that the student cannot practice independently and the RN cannot delegate the supervisory role
D.
Ask the LPN to supervise the student's assessment since LPNs can oversee nursing students in clinical settings
Question 12

A 67-year-old client with atrial fibrillation and an implanted pacemaker inserted 3 years ago is scheduled for a non-urgent brain MRI to evaluate cognitive decline. The client states the cardiologist said the pacemaker "should be fine" for MRI.

Which action by the nurse is most appropriate before the MRI is performed?

A.
Proceed with the MRI because the cardiologist has verbally cleared the device
B.
Contact cardiology/radiology to verify the exact pacemaker model and confirm MRI-conditional status in writing
C.
Cancel the MRI permanently and document that a pacemaker is a contraindication to all MRI scans
D.
Ask the client to sign an informed consent form acknowledging MRI risk and proceed with the scan
Question 13

A nurse is caring for an immunocompromised client post-allogenic stem cell transplant. The physician orders protective (reverse) isolation. While preparing to enter the room, the nurse notes a new visitor wearing fresh street clothes and no mask.

What is the nurse's most appropriate next action?

A.
Instruct the visitor to perform hand hygiene before entering the room
B.
Permit entry since the visitor is only staying briefly
C.
Defer to the charge nurse to decide before taking any action
D.
Prevent the visitor's entry and follow protective environment protocols
Question 14

The RN is about to delegate wound irrigation for a clean surgical wound to an LPN. As the RN reviews the task, which finding should cause the RN to reconsider the delegation?

A.
The wound is located on the lower extremity of a diabetic client
B.
The LPN has performed wound irrigation competently on three previous occasions this week
C.
The wound care order specifies normal saline irrigation, which is available at the bedside
D.
The client has a newly developed temperature of 38.9°C (102°F) and increased wound drainage
Question 15

A client on long-term prednisone abruptly stopped 5 days ago. Now: BP 74/46, HR 118, Na+ 128, K+ 5.8, glucose 48 mg/dL, fever 38.9°C.

What is the priority treatment?

A.
IV fludrocortisone for mineralocorticoid replacement only
B.
Oral prednisone restart and IV fluids only
C.
Vasopressors first before any steroid replacement
D.
IV hydrocortisone 100 mg bolus immediately
Question 16
Case studyScreen 1 of 6
Digoxin Toxicity in a Client with Heart Failure and Chronic Kidney Disease

An 82-year-old client with chronic heart failure and CKD stage 3 takes digoxin 0.125 mg daily and furosemide 40 mg daily. The client reports two days of nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances described as yellow-green halos around lights. Heart rate is 52/min and irregular. Serum potassium is 3.2 mEq/L, and a digoxin level drawn this morning is 2.8 ng/mL (therapeutic range 0.5–2.0 ng/mL).

0800: Client reports two days of nausea and vomiting, and visual disturbances described as "yellow-green halos around the lights." Has continued to take digoxin and furosemide as prescribed at home.

0815: Apical pulse 52/min and irregular over one full minute. Client alert and oriented, appears fatigued. No chest pain or dyspnea reported.

0830: Morning digoxin dose not yet given, pending provider notification.

Which cues are relevant to this client's current presentation?

Select all that apply.

Question 17
Case studyScreen 2 of 6
Digoxin Toxicity in a Client with Heart Failure and Chronic Kidney Disease

For each finding, identify the category it most closely represents.

FindingSign/Symptom of ToxicityRisk Factor for ToxicityUnrelated Finding
Yellow-green visual halos
Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L (hypokalemia)
CKD stage 3 (reduced renal clearance)
Bradycardia with irregular rhythm
Concurrent furosemide use
Client's temperature 37.0°C
Question 18
Case studyScreen 3 of 6
Digoxin Toxicity in a Client with Heart Failure and Chronic Kidney Disease

Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of digoxin?

A.
Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, decreasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand
B.
Inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion
C.
Inhibits the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, increasing intracellular calcium and improving myocardial contractility
D.
Increases nitric oxide availability, causing venous and arterial vasodilation
Question 19
Case studyScreen 4 of 6
Digoxin Toxicity in a Client with Heart Failure and Chronic Kidney Disease

Place the nurse's actions in the correct order of priority, from first to last.

Drag an option into place, or select it and then choose where it goes.

Options
First
Second
Third
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth
Question 20
Case studyScreen 5 of 6
Digoxin Toxicity in a Client with Heart Failure and Chronic Kidney Disease

For each potential action, identify whether it is appropriate, contraindicated, or non-essential at this time.

FindingContraindicatedAppropriateNon-Essential
Hold the digoxin dose
Administer the scheduled digoxin dose as ordered
Obtain a stat ECG to assess for dysrhythmias
Administer IV potassium replacement per protocol
Administer an additional PRN dose of furosemide
Arrange a dietary consult for future meal planning
Question 21
Case studyScreen 6 of 6
Digoxin Toxicity in a Client with Heart Failure and Chronic Kidney Disease

Complete the evaluation note by selecting the correct option for each blank.

Six hours after digoxin was held and potassium repletion began, the client's serum potassium is 4.0 mEq/L and heart rate is 68/min and regular. The visual disturbances have resolved. The nurse determines the client's response to treatment is . The repeat digoxin level is 1.4 ng/mL, which is now the therapeutic range. The provider will digoxin dose once renal function is reassessed.

Question 22

A 4-hour-old term neonate undergoes the first bath in the transition nursery. Prior to bathing, the nurse notes a rectal temperature of 36.1°C (97.0°F), respiratory rate of 48, heart rate of 136, and SpO2 of 97%. The infant's skin is covered in thick vernix caseosa. The mother asks to have the vernix wiped off completely since it looks 'dirty.' The student nurse prepares a basin of warm water for a full immersion bath.

Which nursing action reflects the most current evidence-based newborn bathing practice?

A.
Educate the mother about vernix caseosa and defer the bath until the infant is at least 24 hours old and thermally stable at ≥36.5°C (97.7°F)
B.
Proceed with the immersion bath now, since the infant is 4 hours old and the vital signs are within normal limits
C.
Perform a sponge bath only to remove the vernix, since immersion bathing before 12 hours of age is contraindicated
D.
Remove the vernix with a dry cloth before the bath so the infant's skin appears clean for the mother
Question 23

A 45-year-old woman with no personal history of cancer presents for a routine wellness visit. Her family history includes a mother diagnosed with breast cancer at age 38 and an aunt (maternal) diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 52. The client has never had genetic counseling. She asks the nurse when she should begin mammography screening, stating, 'My friend said I don't need to start until 50 like everyone else.'

Which nursing response is most accurate?

A.
Explain that her family history meets criteria for genetic counseling referral before a screening schedule is finalized
B.
Family history of cancer in a maternal aunt is too distant a relationship to affect screening recommendations
C.
Recommend she begin annual mammography immediately at age 45 since this is consistent with general population screening guidelines
D.
Advise the client that because she has not yet developed any cancer herself, her family history is not clinically relevant until she reaches age 50
Question 24

A 65-year-old man with a 25-pack-year smoking history (quit 8 years ago) presents for a wellness visit with no prior cancer screening since age 45

Select the screening recommendations that are current, evidence-based, and appropriate for this client.

Select all that apply.

Question 25

The nurse is caring for four postoperative clients in the surgical unit. Which client is the priority for immediate assessment?

A.
A 58-year-old on postoperative day 3 following cholecystectomy who requests assistance ambulating to the bathroom
B.
A 65-year-old on postoperative day 2 following knee arthroplasty who reports incisional pain of 5/10 and requests medication
C.
A 47-year-old on postoperative day 1 following bowel resection whose urine output has been 15 mL/hour for the past 3 hours
D.
A 39-year-old on postoperative day 4 following appendectomy whose oral temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F)
Question 26

A 26-year-old woman presents for a routine visit. Her BMI is 23 kg/m², within normal range. She reports recurrent episodes, at least twice weekly for the past 4 months, of consuming large quantities of food within a 2-hour period with a sense of loss of control, followed by self-induced vomiting and laxative misuse. She denies any period of significant weight loss or fear of normal body weight, and expresses intense guilt and shame after each episode.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.
Anorexia nervosa
B.
Bulimia nervosa
C.
Binge-eating disorder
D.
Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
Question 27

A nurse is participating in mass casualty triage following a building collapse. A 28-year-old victim is found unconscious (GCS 3) with absent radial pulse and no spontaneous respirations even after the airway is repositioned. A 45-year-old victim nearby is conscious, alert, and ambulatory with a closed femur fracture and HR 108. A 52-year-old has a tension pneumothorax with absent breath sounds on the left and tracheal deviation.

Under START triage, which client receives the BLACK tag?

A.
The 45-year-old ambulatory client with a closed femur fracture receives the BLACK tag since fractures without neurovascular compromise have the lowest survival priority in mass casualty triage
B.
The 28-year-old unresponsive client with absent radial pulse and no spontaneous respirations despite airway repositioning receives the BLACK tag.
C.
The 52-year-old with tension pneumothorax receives the BLACK tag since absent breath sounds indicate an unsurvivable thoracic injury regardless of triage protocol or available interventions
D.
All three clients should receive RED tags since any unconscious or critically injured victim automatically qualifies as an immediate priority regardless of pulse or respiratory status
Question 28

The adult son of a 78-year-old man actively dying from end-stage heart failure approaches the hospice nurse in the hallway and states, 'I already feel like he’s gone. I’ve been crying for weeks before anything has even happened. Is something wrong with me? Am I grieving for someone who isn’t even dead yet?' The client is alive, minimally responsive, and expected to die within 24–48 hours.

Which nursing response most accurately names the diagnosis and normalizes its mechanism?

A.
Grieving before death is premature and may reduce his ability to be present; defer processing until after death
B.
Anticipatory grief signals from unresolved family conflict; refer to social work before normalizing his response
C.
This is anticipatory grief, a normal process where mourning begins before death; it signals neither pathology nor disloyalty
D.
His distress is caregiver exhaustion, not grief. Grief cannot begin before the loss event occurs
Question 29

A 72-year-old woman with osteoarthritis of both knees and mild left-sided weakness from a prior CVA is being discharged home with a standard walker. Her home has three entry steps without a railing. During discharge teaching, her daughter asks the nurse, 'How should my mother go up and down those steps with the walker?'

Which nursing instruction is most accurate for this situation?

A.
Fold the walker and carry it while ascending stairs one step at a time using the wall for balance
B.
Recommend installation of a handrail or ramp
C.
Use the walker on stairs by planting it on each step before advancing the feet
D.
Lead with the weaker left leg going up to strengthen it through progressive resistance
Question 30

A nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral IV in a 7-year-old boy scheduled for a tonsillectomy. He is tearful and tells his mother, 'I don't want the needle because it's going to hurt forever.' His mother asks whether anything can be done beyond just doing it quickly. The child life specialist is unavailable.

Which combination of comfort measures most accurately reflects evidence-based pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic procedural pain management for a school-age child?

A.
Tell him the needle will not hurt to minimize anticipatory anxiety
B.
Complete the IV rapidly
C.
Apply topical anesthetic and use active distraction during the procedure
D.
Defer IV insertion until child life specialist is available
Question 31

A 66-year-old man underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 8 hours ago and has a three-way indwelling urinary catheter with continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) running at 100 mL/hour. The nurse notes the drainage bag output is 80 mL over the past hour and the irrigant inflow is confirmed patent. The client reports increasing suprapubic pressure and appears restless. The drainage is dark pink with visible clots at the catheter tip.

What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

A.
Inadequate CBI rate causing urine concentration
B.
Catheter migration into the urethra
C.
Catheter clot obstruction causing bladder distension
D.
Normal post-TURP output reduction
Question 32

A 62-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and peripheral neuropathy reports foot pain she describes as 'burning, electric-shock-like jolts that happen even when nothing touches my feet, and sometimes the bed sheet touching my skin is unbearable.' She rates the pain 7/10 and reports it is worse at night, disrupting sleep. Her fasting glucose has been consistently between 180–220 mg/dL. Ibuprofen provides minimal relief.

What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the primary cause?

A.
Peripheral artery disease causing ischemic rest pain
B.
Plantar fasciitis causing nocturnal foot pain
C.
Diabetic neuropathic pain from chronic hyperglycemia
D.
Opioid-refractory musculoskeletal pain requiring escalation
Question 33

A 29-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation presents to the obstetric clinic with severe first-trimester nausea and vomiting. Her OB provider has recommended dietary modifications and small frequent meals, but nausea remains 8/10 and is affecting her ability to work. She prefers to avoid medication during the first trimester and asks the nurse about non-pharmacologic options. The nurse mentions acupressure. The client asks which specific acupressure point is most studied for nausea and vomiting.

Which nursing response is most accurate?

A.
ST36 (Zusanli) — below the knee lateral to tibia
B.
P6 (Neiguan) point — 3 finger-breadths above wrist crease
C.
LI4 (Hegu) — web between thumb and forefinger
D.
CV12 (Zhongwan) — midline above the umbilicus
Question 34

A 44-year-old woman with hyponatremia (serum sodium 118 mEq/L) is admitted for correction. The primary health care provider prescribes 3% hypertonic saline at a controlled rate. Her serum sodium rises from 118 to 134 mEq/L over the first 6 hours of the infusion and her mental status initially improves. Three days later she develops new confusion, headache, and reports her vision is 'going blurry.'

What complication has most likely occurred, and what is its primary cause?

A.
Hypertonic saline allergy causing neurological reaction
B.
Fluid overload from excessive 3% saline administration
C.
Worsening hyponatremia from dilutional effect
D.
Osmotic demyelination from overly rapid sodium correction
Question 35

A 68-year-old man is admitted from the ED for community-acquired pneumonia. During medication reconciliation, the admitting nurse reviews his home medication list provided by his wife, which includes: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 40 mg nightly, metformin 1000 mg twice daily, apixaban 5 mg twice daily, and omeprazole 20 mg daily. The ED physician has prescribed azithromycin 500 mg IV daily and ceftriaxone 1g IV daily. The nurse notices that apixaban is not included in the admission prescriptions.

Which nursing action most accurately reflects medication reconciliation standards?

A.
Hold apixaban
B.
Administer apixaban per the home dose
C.
Document the omission and address it at the next scheduled medication pass
D.
Notify the admitting provider immediately
Question 36
Case studyScreen 1 of 6
Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a Client with Type 1 Diabetes

A 24-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is admitted after two days of nausea, vomiting, and polyuria following an interruption in insulin supply. The client has Kussmaul respirations and a fruity breath odor. Blood glucose is 486 mg/dL, arterial pH is 7.18, serum bicarbonate is 10 mEq/L, and serum ketones are positive. Potassium is 5.6 mEq/L, heart rate is 118/min, and blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg.

0600: Client admitted with two days of nausea, vomiting and polyuria following an interruption in insulin supply. Reports last insulin dose approximately 48 hours ago.

0615: Kussmaul respirations noted - deep and rapid. Fruity odor on the breath. Mucous membranes dry, skin turgor decreased. Alert and oriented but fatigued.

0630: Point-of-care glucose and stat labs obtained. Two large-bore IV lines established.

Which cues are relevant to this client's presentation?

Select all that apply.

Question 37
Case studyScreen 2 of 6
Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a Client with Type 1 Diabetes

For each finding, identify the category it most closely represents.

FindingConsistent with DKACompensatory ResponseNot Directly Related to DKA
Blood glucose 486 mg/dL
Kussmaul respirations
Serum bicarbonate 10 mEq/L
Heart rate 118/min
Positive serum ketones
Temperature 37.2°C
Question 38
Case studyScreen 3 of 6
Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a Client with Type 1 Diabetes

Place the nurse's actions in the correct order, from first to last.

Drag an option into place, or select it and then choose where it goes.

Options
First
Second
Third
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth
Question 39
Case studyScreen 4 of 6
Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a Client with Type 1 Diabetes

For each potential action, identify whether it is appropriate, contraindicated, or non-essential at this time.

FindingNon-EssentialContraindicatedAppropriate
Initiate isotonic IV fluids immediately
Begin insulin infusion before fluid resuscitation is started
Hold insulin infusion until potassium is confirmed above 3.3 mEq/L
Administer sodium bicarbonate routinely for all DKA
Monitor blood glucose and electrolytes hourly
Schedule outpatient endocrinology follow-up
Question 40
Case studyScreen 5 of 6
Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a Client with Type 1 Diabetes

For each finding, identify whether it is more consistent with starvation ketosis, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), or both.

FindingStarvation KetosisDiabetic KetoacidosisBoth
Blood glucose markedly elevated (>250 mg/dL)
Blood glucose within normal to mildly low range
Positive serum and urine ketones
Severe dehydration from osmotic diuresis
Mild dehydration from decreased oral intake
Absolute insulin deficiency
Question 41
Case studyScreen 6 of 6
Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a Client with Type 1 Diabetes

Complete the evaluation note by selecting the correct option for each blank.

After 6 hours of fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion, the client's blood glucose is 210 mg/dL, arterial pH is 7.32, and serum bicarbonate is 18 mEq/L. Potassium remains stable at 4.2 mEq/L. The nurse determines the client's metabolic status is . The insulin infusion rate will be per protocol as glucose approaches target, and the team will plan to to subcutaneous insulin once the anion gap has closed.

Question 42

A 58-year-old man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes has been taking lisinopril 10 mg daily for 6 months. He presents to the clinic reporting a persistent dry, non-productive cough for the past 8 weeks. He denies fever, chest pain, or dyspnea at rest. His lung exam is clear and SpO2 is 99%. He previously tried OTC cough suppressants without relief. His BP is 128/78 mmHg and his last eGFR was 64 mL/min/1.73m².

What is the most accurate explanation for the cause of this symptom?

A.
Pulmonary edema from lisinopril-induced fluid retention
B.
Direct bronchospasm from angiotensin II receptor activation
C.
Renal insufficiency causing uremic irritation of the airways
D.
Bradykinin accumulation from ACE inhibitor blocking its degradation
Question 43

A 71-year-old woman on warfarin 5 mg daily for mechanical heart valve replacement has a routine INR of 4.8 (therapeutic target 2.5–3.5 for mechanical valve). She has no active bleeding, and her last dose was taken this morning. She reports starting clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily 4 days ago for a respiratory infection. She asks, 'Should I just take half my dose tonight to bring the number down?'

Which nursing response is most accurate?

A.
Take half the dose tonight
B.
Do not self-adjust
C.
Take the full dose
D.
Take vitamin K now
Question 44

A 58-year-old woman with gram-negative bacteremia is receiving gentamicin 5 mg/kg IV once daily (extended-interval dosing). She is on day 9 of therapy and reports new onset bilateral tinnitus and a sensation that 'sounds seem muffled' over the past 2 days. Her serum creatinine has remained stable at 1.0 mg/dL throughout treatment. Her gentamicin trough level today is <1 mg/L (within target).

What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

A.
Aminoglycoside cochlear hair cell destruction
B.
Septic emboli from gram-negative bacteremia
C.
Gentamicin overdosage from excessive dosing
D.
Normal auditory adaptation to the antibiotic
Question 45

A 68-year-old man with COPD and a 40-pack-year smoking history is admitted for an acute exacerbation. His arterial blood gas results on 2L nasal cannula are: pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mmHg, HCO3 31 mEq/L, PaO2 54 mmHg, SaO2 84%. His baseline ABG from 6 months ago showed: pH 7.36, PaCO2 52 mmHg, HCO3 29 mEq/L.

What is the most accurate interpretation of today's ABG in context of his baseline?

A.
Acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis
B.
Fully compensated chronic respiratory acidosis
C.
Metabolic alkalosis from excessive diuresis causing compensatory CO2 retention
D.
Mixed disorder: metabolic alkalosis plus acute respiratory acidosis of equal severity
Question 46

A 58-year-old man with decompensated cirrhosis and large-volume ascites undergoes paracentesis with drainage of 7 liters of ascitic fluid. No albumin infusion was ordered or administered. Six hours later, the nurse assesses him and finds: BP dropped from 122/74 to 88/52 mmHg, HR 112 bpm, urine output 18 mL over the past 2 hours, serum creatinine rising from 1.1 to 1.8 mg/dL, and the client reporting dizziness on sitting up.

What is the most likely diagnosis and cause?

A.
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis triggered by the paracentesis needle
B.
Portal hypertensive crisis from sudden ascites pressure relief
C.
Normal post-procedure diuresis with expected transient hypotension
D.
Circulatory dysfunction from intravascular volume contraction
Question 47

An 84-year-old man with advanced dementia is admitted from a nursing home. He is minimally verbal and unable to request water independently. His skin turgor is poor, mucous membranes are parched, and urine specific gravity is 1.032. Labs return: sodium 158 mEq/L, BUN 48 mg/dL, creatinine 1.6 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL), serum osmolality 336 mOsm/kg. He is not on any diuretics and has no history of diabetes insipidus. His fluid intake record from the nursing home shows 280 mL over the past 24 hours.

What is the most likely cause of his hypernatremia?

A.
Diabetes insipidus causing massive urinary free water loss
B.
SIADH causing paradoxical hypernatremia from water retention
C.
Inadequate free water intake from cognitive impairment and care-access failure
D.
Iatrogenic hypernatremia from hypertonic saline infusion during transfer
Question 48

A 52-year-old woman with a small bowel obstruction has been on continuous low nasogastric suction for 3 days, with 1,800–2,200 mL of gastric drainage daily. Her morning labs return: sodium 132 mEq/L, potassium 3.0 mEq/L, chloride 88 mEq/L, bicarbonate 34 mEq/L, pH 7.52 (venous). She reports muscle cramping and tingling in her hands.

What is the most likely diagnosis caused by prolonged nasogastric suction?

A.
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
B.
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
C.
Respiratory alkalosis
D.
Dilutional hyponatremia
Question 49

A client who is 8 hours postoperative from a thyroidectomy reports perioral numbness and tingling of the fingers, and the serum calcium is 6.6 mg/dL. Select the actions indicated for this finding.

Select all that apply.

Question 50

Match each device alarm or finding to the MOST appropriate immediate nursing action.

FindingIncrease pacemaker outputManually bag-ventilateApply 100% O2 via NRB
Ventilator high-pressure alarm with SpO2 drop to 82%
TCP spikes without consistent QRS capture
SpO2 98% in confirmed carbon monoxide exposure
Ventilator disconnection with client distress
Cherry-red skin, HR 118, confusion post-house fire
Question 51

A post-op day 2 client develops sudden pleuritic chest pain, SpO₂ drops to 87%, HR 122, and RR 28.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.
Pneumonia from post-operative aspiration
B.
Spontaneous pneumothorax from barotrauma
C.
Pulmonary embolism from deep vein thrombus
D.
Acute MI with right ventricular strain
Question 52

A 74-year-old type 2 diabetic presents: glucose 920 mg/dL, serum osmolality 362 mOsm/kg, Na+ 148, no ketones, pH 7.38.

What distinguishes this from DKA?

A.
Higher glucose level confirming more severe acidosis
B.
Absent ketones with near-normal pH despite hyperglycemia
C.
Presence of Kussmaul respirations indicating acid production
D.
Bicarbonate below 15 mEq/L from organic acid accumulation
Question 53

A 48-year-old with septic shock develops bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio of 88, and PCWP of 10 mmHg. The client is having difficulty breathing with diffuse bilateral crackles. The client is resistant to oxygen therapy via NRB mask. The client shows no signs of obstructed pulmonary arteries.

What is the most accurate diagnosis and mechanism?

A.
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B.
Hospital-acquired pneumonia
C.
ARDS
D.
Pulmonary embolism
Question 54

Minutes after a kidney is reperfused in the OR, the surgical team notes the graft becomes mottled, cyanotic, and non-functional immediately. No urine output occurs.

What is the mechanism of this irreversible event?

A.
Acute T-cell rejection occurring faster than typical cellular rejection
B.
Surgical anastomosis failure causing acute ischemic graft infarction
C.
Preformed antibody complement activation causing immediate vascular thrombosis
D.
Calcineurin inhibitor toxicity causing immediate graft vasoconstriction
Question 55

A post-cardiac surgery client in the ICU has SvO₂ of 48% on PA catheter monitoring. CO is 3.1 L/min and hemoglobin is 7.2 g/dL.

What is the most accurate interpretation and priority intervention?

A.
Normal SvO₂ variation — no intervention required post-surgery
B.
High oxygen extraction indicating metabolic alkalosis
C.
Critically low O₂ delivery — transfuse pRBCs and optimize CO
D.
PA catheter malposition — reposition before interpreting values
Question 56
Case studyScreen 1 of 6
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel Administering Oral Medication Outside Scope of Practice

A nurse caring for four clients on a medical-surgical unit discovers that an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has been giving one client's scheduled oral acetaminophen “to save the nurse time,” stating the client “always takes the same dose.” The client's vital signs are currently stable and no adverse effects have been noted. The UAP states this has occurred for the past two shifts.

1000: While reviewing the medication record, the nurse discovered that the UAP had given the client's scheduled oral acetaminophen. UAP stated she did so "to save the nurse time" and that the client "always takes the same dose."

1005: UAP reports this has occurred on each of the past two shifts. No nursing assessment was performed before any of the administrations.

1010: Client assessed. Alert and oriented x4, denies nausea, dizziness or any new symptom. No adverse effects identified. Client unaware the person giving the medication was not a nurse.

Which cues are relevant to this delegation concern?

Select all that apply.

Question 57
Case studyScreen 2 of 6
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel Administering Oral Medication Outside Scope of Practice

For each finding, identify the category it most closely represents.

- Scope of Practice Violation - the finding describes the act itself, or its repetition, performed outside the UAP's legal scope. - Client Safety Concern - the finding is not itself an act outside the UAP's scope, but it leaves the client at ongoing risk and changes what the nurse must do now. - Not Directly Relevant - the finding is background context about the circumstances or the outcome so far and does not change the nurse's required response.

For each row, select one option.

FindingClient Safety ConcernScope of Practice ViolationNot Directly Relevant
UAP administered a medication without licensure to do so
No nursing assessment was performed prior to administration
This occurred repeatedly over two shifts
The client experienced no adverse effects this time
The UAP remains assigned to this client and is unaware that medication administration is outside her scope
The unit is currently short-staffed
Question 58
Case studyScreen 3 of 6
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel Administering Oral Medication Outside Scope of Practice

Place the nurse's actions in the correct order, from first to last.

Drag an option into place, or select it and then choose where it goes.

Options
First
Second
Third
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth
Question 59
Case studyScreen 4 of 6
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel Administering Oral Medication Outside Scope of Practice

For each potential action, identify whether it is appropriate, contraindicated, or non-essential at this time.

FindingAppropriateContraindicatedNon-Essential
Immediately stop the UAP from administering further medications
Allow the practice to continue since no harm has occurred
Assess the client for any effects of the unsupervised administration
Report the incident to the nurse manager per facility policy
Terminate the UAP without following facility disciplinary procedures
Schedule a full unit staffing review for next quarter
Question 60
Case studyScreen 5 of 6
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel Administering Oral Medication Outside Scope of Practice

Which actions should the nurse take now?

Select all that apply.

Question 61
Case studyScreen 6 of 6
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel Administering Oral Medication Outside Scope of Practice

Complete the evaluation note by selecting the correct option for each blank.

Following the incident, the nurse manager meets with the UAP to reinforce scope-of-practice boundaries, and a mandatory delegation competency review is scheduled for all UAPs on the unit. Two weeks later, chart audits show no further instances of medication administration by UAP staff. The nurse determines that the corrective action has been . This situation illustrates that the licensed nurse retains for tasks that are delegated, and that ongoing of delegated tasks is an essential nursing responsibility.

Question 62

A nurse on a busy medical unit is administering heparin subcutaneously to a client with a history of hepatitis C. No sharps container is available in the client's room. After withdrawing the needle, the nurse attempts to recap the needle and sustains an injury to the left thumb. The needle had been used on the client.

Select up to 2 causes (left), 1 potential condition (middle) and up to 2 actions (right).

Drag an option into place, or select it and then choose where it goes.

Contributing Factors
Potential Condition
Actions to Take
Options: Contributing Factors
Options: Potential Condition
Options: Actions to Take
Question 63

Complete the statement about therapeutic communication techniques using the word bank. Select one option per blank.

When a client expresses hopelessness, restating their underlying feeling back to them is called while asking 'What do you mean by that?' is an example of . Telling a client 'Don't worry, everything will be fine' is a non-therapeutic technique known as .

Question 64

A child weighing 18 kg is prescribed amoxicillin 45 mg/kg/day by mouth, divided into three equal doses. The oral suspension is supplied as 250 mg per 5 mL. How many millilitres should the nurse give for one dose?

A.
16.2 mL
B.
5.4 mL
C.
2.7 mL
D.
8.1 mL
Question 65

A nurse is preparing to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells. Which action is the priority immediately before the transfusion is started?

A.
Prime the blood tubing with 5% dextrose in water to reduce the viscosity of the unit
B.
Confirm that the unit has been at room temperature for at least 2 hours before spiking it
C.
Two qualified staff verify the client's identity, blood group, unit number and expiry at the bedside against the unit label
D.
Obtain a set of vital signs within the hour before the transfusion begins
Question 66

A client scheduled for a mastectomy tomorrow says quietly, "I suppose there is no point worrying, everyone says I will be fine." Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

A.
"You say there is no point worrying. What is on your mind about tomorrow?"
B.
"They are right, the surgeons here have excellent outcomes with this procedure."
C.
"Try not to dwell on it. Would you like something to help you sleep tonight?"
D.
"Why do you think everyone keeps telling you that you will be fine?"
Question 67

A nurse is teaching parents the order in which fine motor skills typically emerge during the first 18 months.

Place the skills in the order a child usually achieves them, from earliest to latest.

Drag an option into place, or select it and then choose where it goes.

Options
First
Second
Third
Fourth
Fifth
Question 68

A 22-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with 2 days of vomiting. Blood glucose is 486 mg/dL, arterial pH 7.18, bicarbonate 12 mEq/L, anion gap 24, serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L, and there are large ketones in the urine. Respirations are deep and rapid at 32 per minute and the breath has a fruity odour.

Complete the diagram: select 2 contributing factors, 1 potential condition, and 2 actions to take.

Drag an option into place, or select it and then choose where it goes.

Contributing Factors
Potential Condition
Actions to Take
Options: Contributing Factors
Options: Potential Condition
Options: Actions to Take
Question 69

A client is 6 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. Review the assessment note below.

Highlight the 4 findings that require immediate nursing intervention.

Postpartum assessment, 1400

Temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F). Blood pressure 152/98 mmHg. Heart rate 92. Respiratory rate 18.

Fundus boggy and displaced two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus and to the right. Lochia rubra, saturating one perineal pad in 20 minutes with several small clots. Perineum intact with a small first-degree laceration, edges approximated, mild edema.

Client reports a headache described as dull and frontal, and cramping with breastfeeding. Bladder palpable above the symphysis pubis; has not voided since the birth. Breasts soft and non-tender, colostrum expressed. Homans sign negative, calves soft and non-tender bilaterally. Ambulated to the bathroom once without dizziness.

Question 70

Complete the teaching note by selecting the correct option for each blank.

A client is starting warfarin after a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse explains that the effect of warfarin is monitored using the , and that it takes several days to reach a therapeutic effect because the drug acts by rather than by inactivating clotting factors already in the circulation. The client should be taught to keep intake of consistent from week to week rather than avoiding it entirely.

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